padraig said:
Rephrasing, you claim on the one hand that Deleuzeian and Lacanian
critiques should be avoided "because they are hard to read if you are
not familiar with their languages already", and then, without
blinking, that such critiques "don't really say anything that hasn't
been said more clearly elsewhere". So, er, there are other critiques
of Deleuze and Lacan "elsewhere" which make precisely the same points
as Deleuzian and Lacanian critiques more clearly?
I was not saying that there are other critiques of D & L. I was
speaking about criticisms of psychoanalysis that are easier to read
than L & D for someone who may not be familiar with the latters
literary style.
The problem with Freud critiques is that the are scattered around
1000s of articles, often written by practising psychoanalysts. There
is little in the way of systematic accounts. The aforementioned
Macmillan book is very good because it systematises a large chunk of
such critiques in a coherent and easy to read framework. To be fair, there
are problem areas that Macmillan does not touch, but it is an excellent starting
point and full with pointers to additional reading.
padraig said:
[And elsewhere in your post: No social dimension in
Freud's work? Is this an attempt at pomo irony?
No irony. I am serious about this. This failure to account for the
social is keenly felt everywhere in F's writing. He's basic idea is
this: every human is essentially shaped by how he or she deals with
the oedipus complex, which essentially happens around the age of 4.
From then on no substantial alteration of one's personaly occurs that
is not an effect of this oedipal struggle.
This is pathetic on many levels. For a start, there is no oedipus
comples. Human behaviour is essentially social, centring around three
key terms: observation, communication and expectation. None of this
has been conceptualised by Freud. The problem of analyst's suggestions
through subtle communication channel, now extensively studied, would
be a simple application of how a little understanding of communication
can explain what is taken by psychoanalysts as confirmations of their
metapsychological assumptions.
padraig said:
Psychoanalysis to be dismissed because of its "therapeutic"
ineffectiveness? Ineffectiveness at what? Failing to conformito the
imperatives of the Reality Principle? ... and on and on ...].
Yes. Psychoanalysis is primarily therapeutic, and describes itself
thus. By its own standards, then, it has failed. There fairly stable
mental illnesses and unhappinesses, that are likely to be with us for
the foreseeable future, although they might whither away with
different forms of social organisation. Or they might not.
But because they cause concrete suffering now, there is a need to
help sufferers now. It may be true that some such therapies treat
only symptoms and may even help to perpetuate causes, but so
what? There still is concrete suffering now.
Incidentally, the fact that psychoanalysis has not sufficiently
reflected on the genesis of the diseases it seeked to cure and
understand theoretically, is part of the serious shortcomings of this
approach to psychology. One only needs to consider that the illnesses
it spent most energy on (neurastenia, hysteria) no longer seem to
exist.
padraig said:
"Contra-indicated": What's this, other than a pseudo-psychiatric term
originating in the marketing departments of corporate pharmaceutical
multinationals?
"Short solution focused": Oh yes, let's [chemically] SHOCK them or
cuddly-SEDUCE them out of their strange delusions ...!!
This is arrogant posturing.
Let me ask you this: if a friend came to you (as happended to me
recently), telling you that he had just tried to commit suicide, but
was pulled back from the edge of death and has now been put on a
prozac variant, would you tell him: "that's all pseudo-psychiatric
bullshit originating in the marketing departments of corporate
pharmaceutical multinationals? Do 5 years of lacanian analysis
instead, and change the social fabric of the world so that the causes
of your problems disappear?"
padraig said:
No, not all of what are termed "disorders" are
social/environmental/learned/indoctrinated, genetics and physical
damage frequently play a role, but the issue here is a purely
ideological one: what/which behaviours become classified as
"disorders," as others are [re]classified as desirable/normal, even if
the latter are even more socially destructive.
Yes, the system of distinctions that, amongs others, delineate between
normal and ill emerges socially, and any serious psychology needs to
take this into account (as pychoanalysis has essntially failed to do),
but so what. This problem also faces the alternative approaches you
seem to be favouring.