Mr. Tea
Let's Talk About Ceps
I think that a state of war existing is enough to legally justify taking the fleet.
But a state of war with whom? Not 'Palestine', or a part of Palestine, since Israel recognises no such country. With Hamas, maybe, but the shipment was of humanitarian aid for Gazan civilians, not weapons or 'materiel' for Hamas. Is Israel likely to take the line that since Hamas controls Gaza, any aid sent to Gaza would end up in direct possession of Hamas and even if it's just civilian supplies, it's still 'succouring the enemy' and therefore makes a legitimate target?
Edit: certainly not saying I think this would be a defensible argument, just wondering if it's the kind of line Israel might take. Legal or not, I think the blockade is an outrage in the first place, just wanted to make that clear.
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