Mesopotamia, Indus Valley, the Nile m8, Greece and Rome were quite late arriving to the party.
I'm not talking about historical precedence - the USA's only been around for a blink of an eye, but I'd say it's had a fairly big cultural impact on the rest of the world, wouldn't you?
Edit: hang on a minute here...
...in view of this state of affairs it could not be called out of the way to ask what there was in Archaic Greece that did not come from the orient.
"It could not be called out of the way to ask whether..." - hardly sounds like concrete case there.
And:
According to their own accounts, the Greeks were descended in large part from Danaus and Cadmus, two legendary personages recognized as Phoenicians, that is, from the people of Palestine, that resulted from the extensive intermarriage between Canaanites and Hebrews, and who had established colonies throughout the ancient Mediterranean.
If this were the case, how come the Greeks speak an Indo-European language, rather than a Semetic one? How come their religion and mythology has analogues in other Indo-European, not Semetic, civilisations? Bear in mind rastas believe they're descended from the Twelve Tribes of Israel: doesn't make it historically accurate...
To say there was a Persian/Middle Eastern influence on Greece, fine. But to say that Greece
in its entirety was based on other civilisations, with no cultural innovation of its own, is utter crap.