Hmmmm, now this is a poser! Let's think for a moment, though. For what reason might there be more elderly or otherwise clinically vulnerable people
still alive a few years after a pandemic that killed a quarter of a million in this country, who'd had a vaccine that afforded them some protection against the virus, compared to the relative population of vulnerable people who are
still alive and didn't have the vaccine?
Is it just possible that there is a depleted population of unvaccinated vulnerable people, who
would be particularly liable to being killed by the virus
if they were still alive, but who can't die now
because they died in huge numbers a few years ago?
I wonder if the data from the time bears this out? Let's look at, say, January 2021:

Oh, would you look at that! The age-standardised mortality for all causes is 15 times higher for the unvaxxed than the fully vaxxed!
Sit down, fool, read the Simple English Wikipedia on selection bias, and stop embarrassing yourself like this.